Unit 3 & Unit 4
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Capital Structure
How companies mix debt and equity · What makes an ideal mix · All major theories explained simply
Capital Structure means the mix of long-term sources of funds a company uses — mainly Equity (owner's money) and Debt (borrowed money). It answers the question: "How should a company finance its long-term assets and operations?"
"Capital Structure refers to the mix of long-term sources of funds such as debentures, long-term debt, preference share capital, equity share capital including reserves and surplus."
"Capital Structure decisions relate to the financing mix — the proportion of debt and equity — used by the firm."
Tata Motors uses: Equity Shares (listed on BSE/NSE) + Debentures + Bank Loans + Retained Earnings. Each source has a different cost and risk. Their mix of these = Capital Structure. In FY2023, Debt-to-Equity ratio ≈ 1.8 — meaning ₹1.8 of debt for every ₹1 of equity.
- Cost of Capital: Right mix minimizes WACC → lower financing cost
- EPS: Using debt (fixed interest) magnifies EPS through financial leverage
- Financial Risk: Too much debt → higher risk of not paying interest
- Firm Value: Optimal mix maximizes market value of shares
- Control: Debt doesn't dilute ownership. Equity does.
An ideal capital structure achieves the perfect balance between risk and return, minimizes WACC, and maximizes firm value. Here are its 5 key features:
1. Profitability
Use debt to magnify returns to equity shareholders (Trading on Equity). ROA must be > interest rate for this to work.
2. Solvency
Company must always be able to pay interest on time. Interest Coverage Ratio should be at least 2–3x.
3. Flexibility
Keep unused borrowing capacity. Be able to raise or retire funds quickly as business needs change.
4. Conservatism
Debt should not exceed the firm's ability to repay from cash flows. When in doubt — use less debt.
5. Control
Debt holders have no voting rights. So debt preserves promoter control. Issuing too much equity dilutes ownership.
The Ambani family holds ~50% of Reliance equity. If Reliance needed ₹50,000 crore and issued new equity, their stake would get diluted. So Reliance prefers debentures + bank loans alongside equity — raising funds WITHOUT losing control. Debt financing = Control preserved!
- Trading on Equity: If ROA > Interest rate → use more debt. Surplus return goes to equity shareholders. Example: Earn 18%, borrow at 10% → extra 8% goes to shareholders.
- Nature of Industry: Capital-intensive industries (Steel, Power) use more debt. Service industries (IT, Consulting) use less. TCS debt-to-equity ≈ 0.1 vs Tata Steel ≈ 1.5.
- Stability of Earnings: Stable earnings (utilities, FMCG) → can afford more debt. Volatile earnings (airlines, hotels) → use less debt.
- Tax Benefit (Tax Shield): Interest is tax-deductible. At 30% tax, borrowing at 10% actually costs only 7%. This makes debt attractive. Higher tax bracket = more benefit.
- Control: Promoters who want to stay in control prefer debt over equity (debt holders can't vote).
- Market Conditions: Bull market → issue equity at high prices. Low interest rate period → borrow cheap debt. Example: Many Indian cos rushed to borrow in 2020–21 (COVID low-rate era).
- Size of Company: Large companies (Reliance, TCS) access bonds, NCDs, multiple banks. Small MSMEs depend mostly on bank loans.
- Credit Rating: AAA rated company borrows cheaply. Lower rating = higher interest. Companies manage capital structure to protect credit rating.
- Flexibility: Keep some unused borrowing capacity for emergencies and growth opportunities.
Zomato chose to issue equity (IPO) in July 2021 when stock markets were at all-time highs. They raised ₹9,375 crore through equity at a very high valuation. Same shares issued in a bearish market would have raised far less. Market conditions directly influenced their capital structure decision — equity when markets are high, debt when rates are low!
The NI Approach says: Capital structure DOES affect firm value. By using more debt (which is cheaper), the company reduces its WACC, which increases firm value.
🔑 Key Assumptions- Cost of Debt (Kd) stays constant regardless of debt level
- Cost of Equity (Ke) also stays constant regardless of debt level
- No taxes (simplified assumption)
Since debt is cheaper than equity (Kd < Ke), more debt → lower WACC → higher firm value (V = EBIT/Ko). So the NI Approach says: use MAXIMUM DEBT (100% debt) to maximize firm value.
EBIT = ₹2,00,000. Ke = 15%. Kd = 10%.
Case 1 — All Equity: Ko = 15%. Value = 2,00,000 ÷ 0.15 = ₹13,33,333
Case 2 — 50% Debt: WACC decreases. Value = ₹15,00,000 (Higher!)
Case 3 — 75% Debt: WACC decreases further. Value = ₹15,83,333 (Even Higher!)
⚠️ Limitation: Ignores financial risk. Unlimited debt is UNREALISTIC — interest may default!
The NOI Approach is the exact opposite of the NI Approach. It says: capital structure does NOT affect firm value at all. The firm's value depends only on its EBIT and overall risk class.
🔑 Central ArgumentWhen a company uses more debt, equity shareholders see MORE risk and demand HIGHER returns (Ke rises). This rise in Ke exactly cancels the benefit of cheaper debt. So WACC stays the same and firm value stays the same — no matter how much debt is used.
NI Approach
- Capital structure MATTERS
- More debt → lower WACC
- Ke stays constant
- Optimal = 100% debt
NOI Approach
- Capital structure does NOT matter
- WACC stays CONSTANT
- Ke RISES with debt (cancels benefit)
- No optimal structure exists
The Traditional Approach is the most practical and widely accepted theory. It takes a middle position between NI and NOI. It says: an optimal capital structure exists at moderate debt levels where WACC is minimum and firm value is maximum.
📈 3 Stages of Traditional ApproachStage 1: Rising Value
Initially, adding debt reduces WACC (debt is cheaper). Equity holders don't react much. Firm value INCREASES.
Stage 2: Optimal Point
At moderate debt level, WACC reaches its MINIMUM and firm value reaches MAXIMUM. This is the OPTIMAL CAPITAL STRUCTURE.
Stage 3: Falling Value
Beyond optimal point, more debt makes shareholders nervous. Ke rises sharply. WACC increases. Firm value DECREASES.
0% Debt: WACC = 14.0% → Firm Value = ₹35.7 lakh
30% Debt: WACC = 13.5% → Value = ₹37.0 lakh (Rising)
50% Debt: WACC = 13.0% → Value = ₹38.5 lakh ← OPTIMAL POINT!
70% Debt: WACC = 14.4% → Value = ₹34.7 lakh (Falling — too much debt!)
MM Hypothesis was given by Franco Modigliani and Merton Miller (both Nobel Prize winners). It comes in two versions:
📌 Version 1: MM Without Taxes (1958)In a PERFECT CAPITAL MARKET (no taxes, no transaction costs, all investors rational), firm value is INDEPENDENT of capital structure. It doesn't matter how you finance — what matters is your earning power (EBIT).
Key Mechanism — Arbitrage (Homemade Leverage): If an unlevered firm is undervalued, investors will borrow personally and buy its shares — replicating what the company would do through corporate leverage. This arbitrage brings both firms to equal value.
MM Proposition I (No Taxes)
V(Levered) = V(Unlevered). Firm value depends ONLY on EBIT, not on how it's financed. Capital structure is IRRELEVANT.
MM Proposition II (No Taxes)
As debt increases, Ke increases proportionally to keep WACC constant. Formula: Ke = Ko + (Ko − Kd) × (D/E). This confirms Proposition I.
When TAXES are included, debt has a powerful advantage — the Interest Tax Shield. Interest is tax-deductible. This means the government subsidizes your debt! Value of tax shield = Tax Rate × Debt Amount.
Firm U (All Equity): EBIT = ₹2,00,000. Tax = 30%. Ko = 15%.
VU = 2,00,000 × (1−0.30) ÷ 0.15 = ₹9,33,333.
Firm L borrows ₹4,00,000 at 10%. Tax Shield = 30% × 4,00,000 = ₹1,20,000.
VL = ₹9,33,333 + ₹1,20,000 = ₹10,53,333 — Firm L is worth MORE!
Conclusion: Every rupee of debt adds T × D to firm value → Use MAXIMUM DEBT!
| Theory | Does CS Matter? | Optimal CS | Key Point |
|---|---|---|---|
| NI Approach | YES | 100% Debt | Ke & Kd constant |
| NOI Approach | NO | None | WACC constant, Ke rises |
| Traditional | YES | Moderate Debt | WACC is U-shaped |
| MM No Tax | NO | None | Arbitrage equalizes values |
| MM With Tax | YES | 100% Debt | VL = VU + T×D |
Corporate Investment Decisions
Capital Budgeting (NPV, IRR, PI, Payback, ARR) + Working Capital Management — all in simple language
Capital Budgeting is the process of planning, evaluating, and selecting long-term investment decisions. It answers: "Should we build a new factory? Buy new machines? Launch a new product?" These decisions involve large money + long time + high risk.
"Capital budgeting is the process of making investment decisions in capital expenditures where returns are expected over a period exceeding one year."
- Large Money: Decisions involve hundreds or thousands of crores — wrong decision = massive loss
- Long Period: Effects last 5, 10, 20+ years — need careful long-term analysis
- Irreversible: Once factory is built, hard to undo. Once machine is bought, hard to sell at full price
- Strategic: These decisions define company's future direction (EV, digital, expansion)
- Wealth Impact: Good investments → positive NPV → higher share price → shareholder wealth created
Tata Steel invested ₹25,000 crore to build a 5 million tonne steel plant in Odisha. Construction: 5 years. Expected life: 30+ years. Expected cash inflows: ₹8,000–12,000 crore/year. Before building, finance team used NPV, IRR, Payback Period to decide if it was worth it. That analysis = Capital Budgeting in action.
• Initial Investment (Year 0) = Cost of asset + installation + working capital required (Cash OUTFLOW)
• Annual Operating Cash Inflows = EAT + Depreciation (Years 1 to n)
• Terminal Cash Flow (Year n) = Salvage value + Recovery of working capital (Cash INFLOW)
NPV is the most recommended method for capital budgeting. It calculates the difference between the Present Value of all future cash inflows and the initial investment. If positive, project creates value. If negative, it destroys value.
r = discount rate (WACC/Cost of Capital). t = year. Σ = sum of all years.
✅ Decision Rule- NPV > 0 → ACCEPT — project creates value (returns more than cost of capital)
- NPV < 0 → REJECT — project destroys value
- NPV = 0 → Indifferent — project exactly covers cost of capital
- For mutually exclusive projects: choose the one with HIGHER NPV
Investment = ₹2,00,000. Cash Inflows: Yr1=₹60,000, Yr2=₹80,000, Yr3=₹1,00,000, Yr4=₹40,000. Cost of Capital = 10%.
₹54,545₹66,116₹75,131₹27,322₹2,23,114₹23,114✅ Advantages of NPV
- Considers Time Value of Money
- Considers ALL cash flows
- Directly measures value creation
- Additive (can sum NPVs)
❌ Disadvantages of NPV
- Needs discount rate in advance
- Difficult for non-finance managers
- Hard to compare projects of different sizes
IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV of a project becomes exactly ZERO. It is the rate of return the project itself generates. "Internal" means it depends only on the project's own cash flows.
- IRR > Cost of Capital → ACCEPT — project returns more than minimum required
- IRR < Cost of Capital → REJECT — project returns less than required
- Between projects: choose the one with HIGHER IRR
Investment = ₹1,00,000. Annual Cash Inflow for 5 years = ₹28,000.
Try 12%: PV factor (5yr, 12%) = 3.605. PV = 28,000 × 3.605 = ₹1,00,940. NPV = +₹940 (positive, small)
Try 13%: PV factor (5yr, 13%) = 3.517. PV = 28,000 × 3.517 = ₹98,476. NPV = −₹1,524 (negative)
IRR = 12% + [940 ÷ (940+1524)] × 1% = 12% + 0.38% = 12.38%
If WACC = 10%: IRR (12.38%) > WACC (10%) → ACCEPT!
PI measures how much present value you get per rupee invested. It is especially useful when a company has limited funds (capital rationing) and needs to rank projects by efficiency.
- PI > 1 → ACCEPT (returns more than cost)
- PI < 1 → REJECT
- Under capital rationing: Rank projects by PI — choose highest PI first
Project A: Investment ₹5L, PV Inflows = ₹6.5L, NPV = ₹1.5L. PI = 6.5÷5 = 1.30
Project B: Investment ₹10L, PV Inflows = ₹11.5L, NPV = ₹1.5L. PI = 11.5÷10 = 1.15
Both NPVs are equal (₹1.5L) but PI of A is higher. Under limited funds → Choose A (30 paise return per ₹1 invested vs 15 paise for B). PI helps prioritize when money is limited!
Payback Period = time taken for cumulative cash inflows to recover the initial investment. Quick and simple — but ignores time value of money.
Case 1: Even Cash Flows
4 yearsCase 2: Uneven Cash Flows
✅ Advantages
- Very simple to calculate
- Good for liquidity assessment
- Useful initial screening tool
- Good for risk-averse companies
❌ Disadvantages
- Ignores Time Value of Money
- Ignores cash flows after payback
- Doesn't measure profitability
ARR measures average annual accounting profit as a percentage of average investment. Simple to use with readily available data — but ignores time value of money.
Machine Cost = ₹5,00,000. Life = 5 years. Salvage = ₹50,000. Total Profit (5 yrs) = ₹2,00,000.
Avg Annual Profit = 2,00,000 ÷ 5 = ₹40,000.
Avg Investment = (5,00,000 + 50,000) ÷ 2 = ₹2,75,000.
ARR = (40,000 ÷ 2,75,000) × 100 = 14.55%
If required return = 12%: ARR (14.55%) > 12% → ACCEPT ✅
| Method | TVM? | Accept Rule | Best For | Main Weakness |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| NPV | ✅ Yes | NPV > 0 | Ranking projects | Needs discount rate |
| IRR | ✅ Yes | IRR > WACC | Communicating returns | Multiple IRRs possible |
| PI | ✅ Yes | PI > 1 | Capital rationing | Ignores project size |
| Payback | ❌ No | PBP < Max | Liquidity check | Ignores post-PBP flows |
| ARR | ❌ No | ARR > Required | Quick profit check | Uses profit not cash |
Working Capital is the money a business needs for its day-to-day operations — buying raw materials, paying wages, covering utility bills. Without adequate working capital, even a profitable company can fail. This is called the "profitable but bankrupt" paradox.
"Working Capital Management is concerned with the management of current assets and current liabilities."
Jan: Buys cotton worth ₹10 lakh. Feb: Weaves it into cloth. Mar: Sells on 60-day credit. May: Receives cash.
From Jan to May = 4 months. During these 4 months, ₹10 lakh is locked in the business cycle. This locked money = Working Capital. Without it, production stops → orders lost → company fails despite having good products!
💧 Liquidity (Safety)
- Always have enough cash to pay wages, suppliers, bills
- Avoid insolvency risk
- Too little WC = operations stop!
💰 Profitability (Efficiency)
- Don't hold excess cash/inventory (opportunity cost)
- Idle funds should be invested
- Too much WC = wasted resources!
🟢 Current Assets (CA)
- Cash & Bank Balance — immediate payments
- Inventory — Raw materials, WIP, Finished goods
- Debtors/Receivables — credit sales not yet collected
- Marketable Securities — short-term investments
- Prepaid Expenses — advance payments
🔴 Current Liabilities (CL)
- Creditors/Payables — goods bought on credit
- Bank Overdraft — short-term bank borrowing
- Outstanding Expenses — wages/rent not yet paid
- Short-term Loans — repayable within 1 year
Gross WC
Total Current Assets. Represents total investment in short-term assets. GWC = CA.
Net WC
Current Assets MINUS Current Liabilities. Measures liquidity. Positive = liquid. Negative = dangerous.
Permanent WC
Minimum WC always needed — never goes below this baseline, regardless of season.
Temporary WC
Extra WC needed during peak seasons only. Example: toy company before Diwali season.
- Nature of Business: Manufacturing (high WC) vs Services (low WC)
- Length of Operating Cycle: Longer cycle = more WC needed
- Credit Policy: More credit given to customers = more debtors = more WC needed
- Seasonality: Seasonal businesses (umbrellas, ACs, woolens) need variable WC
- Rate of Growth: Faster growing company = more WC needed
- Price Level (Inflation): Rising prices = same physical stock costs more
The Operating Cycle (also called Cash Conversion Cycle) is the time taken to convert cash → raw materials → WIP → finished goods → debtors → cash again. It's the full circle of working capital flow.
🔄 Operating Cycle Stages
CASH → Buy Raw Materials → Production (WIP) → Finished Goods → Sell on Credit (Debtors) → Collect Cash → REPEAT
Raw Material storage = 30 days. Production/Assembly = 15 days. Finished goods waiting = 20 days. Dealers pay after = 30 days. Maruti pays steel suppliers after = 45 days.
Operating Cycle = 30 + 15 + 20 + 30 − 45 = 50 days.
Money is locked for 50 days! With monthly sales of ₹10,000 crore → WC needed = 10,000 × (50÷30) = ₹16,667 crore!
💡 Shorter operating cycle = LESS working capital needed = MORE efficient business.
1. Aggressive
High Risk, Low Cost. Use mostly short-term funds even for permanent current assets. Cheap but risky — must renew frequently. Good for confident companies.
2. Conservative
Low Risk, High Cost. Use mostly long-term funds for all current assets. Safe but expensive — money tied up unnecessarily. Good for risky/uncertain industries.
3. Moderate / Matching
Medium Risk, Medium Cost. Match maturity of funds to need. Long-term funds for permanent CA. Short-term funds for temporary CA. Most recommended!
The Balance Sheet Method lists all expected Current Assets and Current Liabilities at their projected levels and computes the Net Working Capital required. It is the most structured and widely used method.
📐 Key Formulas for Each Component| Component | Formula |
|---|---|
| Raw Material Stock | (Annual RM Consumption ÷ 365) × Days of Stock |
| WIP Stock | (Annual Cost of Production ÷ 365) × WIP Days |
| Finished Goods Stock | (Annual Cost of Goods Sold ÷ 365) × FG Days |
| Debtors | (Annual Credit Sales ÷ 365) × Collection Period Days |
| Less: Creditors | (Annual Credit Purchases ÷ 365) × Payment Period Days |
| Net Working Capital | Total CA − Total CL |
| Total WC Required | NWC + Safety Margin (10–15%) |
Given: Annual Sales = ₹60L (all credit). Cost of Production = ₹45L. RM Consumed = ₹20L. RM Stock = 30 days. WIP = 15 days. FG = 20 days. Debtors = 45 days. Creditors = 30 days.
CURRENT ASSETS:
₹1,64,384₹1,84,932₹2,46,575₹7,39,726₹50,000 (assumed)CURRENT LIABILITIES:
₹1,64,384₹12,21,233P. R. Pote Patil College of Engineering & Management, Amravati · MBA First Year Semester II
Reference: Khan & Jain · I.M. Pandey · Prasanna Chandra · Brealey & Myers · Kishore Ravi