FM Notes – Unit 3 & 4 | MBA 204
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Unit 3 & Unit 4
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🏛️ Capital Structure 📊 NI · NOI · MM Theories 💼 Capital Budgeting 🔄 Working Capital
🏛️ Unit 3

Capital Structure

How companies mix debt and equity · What makes an ideal mix · All major theories explained simply

01
What is Capital Structure?
Meaning · Definition · Importance

Capital Structure means the mix of long-term sources of funds a company uses — mainly Equity (owner's money) and Debt (borrowed money). It answers the question: "How should a company finance its long-term assets and operations?"

I.M. Pandey

"Capital Structure refers to the mix of long-term sources of funds such as debentures, long-term debt, preference share capital, equity share capital including reserves and surplus."

Prasanna Chandra

"Capital Structure decisions relate to the financing mix — the proportion of debt and equity — used by the firm."

📌 Example
Tata Motors Capital Structure

Tata Motors uses: Equity Shares (listed on BSE/NSE) + Debentures + Bank Loans + Retained Earnings. Each source has a different cost and risk. Their mix of these = Capital Structure. In FY2023, Debt-to-Equity ratio ≈ 1.8 — meaning ₹1.8 of debt for every ₹1 of equity.

💡 Capital Structure vs Financial Structure: Financial Structure = ALL sources (short-term + long-term). Capital Structure = Only LONG-TERM sources. Capital Structure is a PART of Financial Structure.
🎯 Why Capital Structure Matters
  • Cost of Capital: Right mix minimizes WACC → lower financing cost
  • EPS: Using debt (fixed interest) magnifies EPS through financial leverage
  • Financial Risk: Too much debt → higher risk of not paying interest
  • Firm Value: Optimal mix maximizes market value of shares
  • Control: Debt doesn't dilute ownership. Equity does.
02
Features of an Ideal Capital Structure
5 Key Characteristics Every Company Should Aim For

An ideal capital structure achieves the perfect balance between risk and return, minimizes WACC, and maximizes firm value. Here are its 5 key features:

💰

1. Profitability

Use debt to magnify returns to equity shareholders (Trading on Equity). ROA must be > interest rate for this to work.

🛡️

2. Solvency

Company must always be able to pay interest on time. Interest Coverage Ratio should be at least 2–3x.

🔄

3. Flexibility

Keep unused borrowing capacity. Be able to raise or retire funds quickly as business needs change.

🎯

4. Conservatism

Debt should not exceed the firm's ability to repay from cash flows. When in doubt — use less debt.

🔐

5. Control

Debt holders have no voting rights. So debt preserves promoter control. Issuing too much equity dilutes ownership.

📌 Example — Control
Ambani Family & Reliance Industries

The Ambani family holds ~50% of Reliance equity. If Reliance needed ₹50,000 crore and issued new equity, their stake would get diluted. So Reliance prefers debentures + bank loans alongside equity — raising funds WITHOUT losing control. Debt financing = Control preserved!

03
Factors Affecting Capital Structure
What determines how much debt vs equity a company should use?
  • Trading on Equity: If ROA > Interest rate → use more debt. Surplus return goes to equity shareholders. Example: Earn 18%, borrow at 10% → extra 8% goes to shareholders.
  • Nature of Industry: Capital-intensive industries (Steel, Power) use more debt. Service industries (IT, Consulting) use less. TCS debt-to-equity ≈ 0.1 vs Tata Steel ≈ 1.5.
  • Stability of Earnings: Stable earnings (utilities, FMCG) → can afford more debt. Volatile earnings (airlines, hotels) → use less debt.
  • Tax Benefit (Tax Shield): Interest is tax-deductible. At 30% tax, borrowing at 10% actually costs only 7%. This makes debt attractive. Higher tax bracket = more benefit.
  • Control: Promoters who want to stay in control prefer debt over equity (debt holders can't vote).
  • Market Conditions: Bull market → issue equity at high prices. Low interest rate period → borrow cheap debt. Example: Many Indian cos rushed to borrow in 2020–21 (COVID low-rate era).
  • Size of Company: Large companies (Reliance, TCS) access bonds, NCDs, multiple banks. Small MSMEs depend mostly on bank loans.
  • Credit Rating: AAA rated company borrows cheaply. Lower rating = higher interest. Companies manage capital structure to protect credit rating.
  • Flexibility: Keep some unused borrowing capacity for emergencies and growth opportunities.
📌 Example — Market Conditions
Zomato IPO — July 2021

Zomato chose to issue equity (IPO) in July 2021 when stock markets were at all-time highs. They raised ₹9,375 crore through equity at a very high valuation. Same shares issued in a bearish market would have raised far less. Market conditions directly influenced their capital structure decision — equity when markets are high, debt when rates are low!

04
Net Income (NI) Approach
David Durand · More Debt = Higher Firm Value

The NI Approach says: Capital structure DOES affect firm value. By using more debt (which is cheaper), the company reduces its WACC, which increases firm value.

🔑 Key Assumptions
  • Cost of Debt (Kd) stays constant regardless of debt level
  • Cost of Equity (Ke) also stays constant regardless of debt level
  • No taxes (simplified assumption)
💡 Main Argument

Since debt is cheaper than equity (Kd < Ke), more debt → lower WACC → higher firm value (V = EBIT/Ko). So the NI Approach says: use MAXIMUM DEBT (100% debt) to maximize firm value.

📌 Simple Illustration
More Debt = Higher Value

EBIT = ₹2,00,000. Ke = 15%. Kd = 10%.

Case 1 — All Equity: Ko = 15%. Value = 2,00,000 ÷ 0.15 = ₹13,33,333

Case 2 — 50% Debt: WACC decreases. Value = ₹15,00,000 (Higher!)

Case 3 — 75% Debt: WACC decreases further. Value = ₹15,83,333 (Even Higher!)

⚠️ Limitation: Ignores financial risk. Unlimited debt is UNREALISTIC — interest may default!

🎯 Exam Answer: NI Approach says capital structure MATTERS. More debt → lower WACC → higher firm value. Optimal = 100% debt. Scholar: David Durand.
05
Net Operating Income (NOI) Approach
David Durand · Capital Structure Does NOT Matter

The NOI Approach is the exact opposite of the NI Approach. It says: capital structure does NOT affect firm value at all. The firm's value depends only on its EBIT and overall risk class.

🔑 Central Argument

When a company uses more debt, equity shareholders see MORE risk and demand HIGHER returns (Ke rises). This rise in Ke exactly cancels the benefit of cheaper debt. So WACC stays the same and firm value stays the same — no matter how much debt is used.

Firm Value (V) = EBIT ÷ Ko — where Ko is CONSTANT regardless of debt level

NI Approach

  • Capital structure MATTERS
  • More debt → lower WACC
  • Ke stays constant
  • Optimal = 100% debt

NOI Approach

  • Capital structure does NOT matter
  • WACC stays CONSTANT
  • Ke RISES with debt (cancels benefit)
  • No optimal structure exists
🎯 Exam Answer: NOI Approach says capital structure does NOT matter. WACC is constant. As debt rises, Ke rises proportionally to offset it. Scholar: David Durand.
06
Traditional Approach
Ezra Solomon · Optimal Capital Structure EXISTS

The Traditional Approach is the most practical and widely accepted theory. It takes a middle position between NI and NOI. It says: an optimal capital structure exists at moderate debt levels where WACC is minimum and firm value is maximum.

📈 3 Stages of Traditional Approach
📈

Stage 1: Rising Value

Initially, adding debt reduces WACC (debt is cheaper). Equity holders don't react much. Firm value INCREASES.

Stage 2: Optimal Point

At moderate debt level, WACC reaches its MINIMUM and firm value reaches MAXIMUM. This is the OPTIMAL CAPITAL STRUCTURE.

📉

Stage 3: Falling Value

Beyond optimal point, more debt makes shareholders nervous. Ke rises sharply. WACC increases. Firm value DECREASES.

📌 Illustration
U-Shaped WACC Curve

0% Debt: WACC = 14.0% → Firm Value = ₹35.7 lakh

30% Debt: WACC = 13.5% → Value = ₹37.0 lakh (Rising)

50% Debt: WACC = 13.0% → Value = ₹38.5 lakh ← OPTIMAL POINT!

70% Debt: WACC = 14.4% → Value = ₹34.7 lakh (Falling — too much debt!)

💡 Key Insight: WACC follows a U-shape — it first falls with debt (debt is cheap) then rises (too much risk). The bottom of the U = Optimal Capital Structure = Maximum Firm Value.
🎯 Exam Answer: Traditional Approach — optimal CS exists where WACC is minimum. WACC is U-shaped. Scholar: Ezra Solomon.
07
Modigliani-Miller (MM) Hypothesis
Nobel Prize Winners · Without Taxes vs With Taxes

MM Hypothesis was given by Franco Modigliani and Merton Miller (both Nobel Prize winners). It comes in two versions:

📌 Version 1: MM Without Taxes (1958)

In a PERFECT CAPITAL MARKET (no taxes, no transaction costs, all investors rational), firm value is INDEPENDENT of capital structure. It doesn't matter how you finance — what matters is your earning power (EBIT).

Key Mechanism — Arbitrage (Homemade Leverage): If an unlevered firm is undervalued, investors will borrow personally and buy its shares — replicating what the company would do through corporate leverage. This arbitrage brings both firms to equal value.

MM Proposition I (No Taxes)

V(Levered) = V(Unlevered). Firm value depends ONLY on EBIT, not on how it's financed. Capital structure is IRRELEVANT.

MM Proposition II (No Taxes)

As debt increases, Ke increases proportionally to keep WACC constant. Formula: Ke = Ko + (Ko − Kd) × (D/E). This confirms Proposition I.

📌 Version 2: MM With Taxes (1963)

When TAXES are included, debt has a powerful advantage — the Interest Tax Shield. Interest is tax-deductible. This means the government subsidizes your debt! Value of tax shield = Tax Rate × Debt Amount.

VL (Levered Firm) = VU (Unlevered Firm) + T × D (Tax Shield)
📌 MM With Taxes — Example
Tax Shield Adds Value

Firm U (All Equity): EBIT = ₹2,00,000. Tax = 30%. Ko = 15%.

VU = 2,00,000 × (1−0.30) ÷ 0.15 = ₹9,33,333.

Firm L borrows ₹4,00,000 at 10%. Tax Shield = 30% × 4,00,000 = ₹1,20,000.

VL = ₹9,33,333 + ₹1,20,000 = ₹10,53,333 — Firm L is worth MORE!

Conclusion: Every rupee of debt adds T × D to firm value → Use MAXIMUM DEBT!

TheoryDoes CS Matter?Optimal CSKey Point
NI ApproachYES100% DebtKe & Kd constant
NOI ApproachNONoneWACC constant, Ke rises
TraditionalYESModerate DebtWACC is U-shaped
MM No TaxNONoneArbitrage equalizes values
MM With TaxYES100% DebtVL = VU + T×D
💼 Unit 4

Corporate Investment Decisions

Capital Budgeting (NPV, IRR, PI, Payback, ARR) + Working Capital Management — all in simple language

08
Capital Budgeting — Introduction & Importance
Long-term investment decisions · Why they matter so much

Capital Budgeting is the process of planning, evaluating, and selecting long-term investment decisions. It answers: "Should we build a new factory? Buy new machines? Launch a new product?" These decisions involve large money + long time + high risk.

I.M. Pandey

"Capital budgeting is the process of making investment decisions in capital expenditures where returns are expected over a period exceeding one year."

🎯 Why Capital Budgeting is Important
  • Large Money: Decisions involve hundreds or thousands of crores — wrong decision = massive loss
  • Long Period: Effects last 5, 10, 20+ years — need careful long-term analysis
  • Irreversible: Once factory is built, hard to undo. Once machine is bought, hard to sell at full price
  • Strategic: These decisions define company's future direction (EV, digital, expansion)
  • Wealth Impact: Good investments → positive NPV → higher share price → shareholder wealth created
📌 Example
Tata Steel Kalinganagar Plant

Tata Steel invested ₹25,000 crore to build a 5 million tonne steel plant in Odisha. Construction: 5 years. Expected life: 30+ years. Expected cash inflows: ₹8,000–12,000 crore/year. Before building, finance team used NPV, IRR, Payback Period to decide if it was worth it. That analysis = Capital Budgeting in action.

💡 Types of Cash Flows in Capital Budgeting:
• Initial Investment (Year 0) = Cost of asset + installation + working capital required (Cash OUTFLOW)
• Annual Operating Cash Inflows = EAT + Depreciation (Years 1 to n)
• Terminal Cash Flow (Year n) = Salvage value + Recovery of working capital (Cash INFLOW)
09
Net Present Value (NPV)
Best method · Considers time value · Measures value added

NPV is the most recommended method for capital budgeting. It calculates the difference between the Present Value of all future cash inflows and the initial investment. If positive, project creates value. If negative, it destroys value.

NPV = Σ [Cash Flow / (1+r)^t] − Initial Investment

r = discount rate (WACC/Cost of Capital). t = year. Σ = sum of all years.

✅ Decision Rule
  • NPV > 0 → ACCEPT — project creates value (returns more than cost of capital)
  • NPV < 0 → REJECT — project destroys value
  • NPV = 0 → Indifferent — project exactly covers cost of capital
  • For mutually exclusive projects: choose the one with HIGHER NPV
📝 Solved Example — Machine Purchase

Investment = ₹2,00,000. Cash Inflows: Yr1=₹60,000, Yr2=₹80,000, Yr3=₹1,00,000, Yr4=₹40,000. Cost of Capital = 10%.

1
PV Year 1 = 60,000 ÷ (1.10)¹ = ₹54,545
2
PV Year 2 = 80,000 ÷ (1.10)² = ₹66,116
3
PV Year 3 = 1,00,000 ÷ (1.10)³ = ₹75,131
4
PV Year 4 = 40,000 ÷ (1.10)⁴ = ₹27,322
5
Total PV of Inflows = 54,545+66,116+75,131+27,322 = ₹2,23,114
6
NPV = ₹2,23,114 − ₹2,00,000 = ₹23,114
✅ NPV = +₹23,114 → ACCEPT the project. It creates ₹23,114 of additional value!

✅ Advantages of NPV

  • Considers Time Value of Money
  • Considers ALL cash flows
  • Directly measures value creation
  • Additive (can sum NPVs)

❌ Disadvantages of NPV

  • Needs discount rate in advance
  • Difficult for non-finance managers
  • Hard to compare projects of different sizes
10
Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
Rate at which NPV = 0 · Expressed as % · Compare with WACC

IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV of a project becomes exactly ZERO. It is the rate of return the project itself generates. "Internal" means it depends only on the project's own cash flows.

At IRR: NPV = 0 → Σ[CF/(1+IRR)^t] = Initial Investment
✅ Decision Rule
  • IRR > Cost of Capital → ACCEPT — project returns more than minimum required
  • IRR < Cost of Capital → REJECT — project returns less than required
  • Between projects: choose the one with HIGHER IRR
📌 IRR by Interpolation
Finding IRR Step by Step

Investment = ₹1,00,000. Annual Cash Inflow for 5 years = ₹28,000.

Try 12%: PV factor (5yr, 12%) = 3.605. PV = 28,000 × 3.605 = ₹1,00,940. NPV = +₹940 (positive, small)

Try 13%: PV factor (5yr, 13%) = 3.517. PV = 28,000 × 3.517 = ₹98,476. NPV = −₹1,524 (negative)

IRR = 12% + [940 ÷ (940+1524)] × 1% = 12% + 0.38% = 12.38%

If WACC = 10%: IRR (12.38%) > WACC (10%) → ACCEPT!

💡 IRR vs NPV Conflict: For mutually exclusive projects, NPV and IRR may rank projects differently. Always trust NPV — it directly measures value creation. IRR is good for communication (% is easy to understand) but NPV is more reliable for decision-making.
11
Profitability Index (PI)
Benefit-Cost Ratio · Best for Capital Rationing

PI measures how much present value you get per rupee invested. It is especially useful when a company has limited funds (capital rationing) and needs to rank projects by efficiency.

PI = PV of Cash Inflows ÷ Initial Investment
OR: PI = 1 + (NPV ÷ Initial Investment)
✅ Decision Rule
  • PI > 1 → ACCEPT (returns more than cost)
  • PI < 1 → REJECT
  • Under capital rationing: Rank projects by PI — choose highest PI first
📌 Example — Capital Rationing
Which Project to Choose When Funds are Limited?

Project A: Investment ₹5L, PV Inflows = ₹6.5L, NPV = ₹1.5L. PI = 6.5÷5 = 1.30

Project B: Investment ₹10L, PV Inflows = ₹11.5L, NPV = ₹1.5L. PI = 11.5÷10 = 1.15

Both NPVs are equal (₹1.5L) but PI of A is higher. Under limited funds → Choose A (30 paise return per ₹1 invested vs 15 paise for B). PI helps prioritize when money is limited!

12
Payback Period (PBP)
Simplest method · How fast do we get our money back?

Payback Period = time taken for cumulative cash inflows to recover the initial investment. Quick and simple — but ignores time value of money.

PBP (Even CFs) = Initial Investment ÷ Annual Cash Inflow
📝 Both Cases — Even & Uneven Cash Flows

Case 1: Even Cash Flows

1
Investment = ₹3,00,000. Annual Inflow = ₹75,000.
2
PBP = 3,00,000 ÷ 75,000 = 4 years

Case 2: Uneven Cash Flows

1
Investment = ₹2,00,000. Yr1=₹60K, Yr2=₹80K, Yr3=₹70K, Yr4=₹50K
2
Cumulative: End Yr1 = ₹60K | End Yr2 = ₹1,40K | End Yr3 = ₹2,10K
3
Investment recovered between Yr 2 & 3. Remaining after Yr2 = ₹2,00K−₹1,40K = ₹60K
4
Fraction of Yr3 = 60,000 ÷ 70,000 = 0.857 years
✅ PBP = 2 + 0.857 = 2.857 years ≈ 2 years and 10 months

✅ Advantages

  • Very simple to calculate
  • Good for liquidity assessment
  • Useful initial screening tool
  • Good for risk-averse companies

❌ Disadvantages

  • Ignores Time Value of Money
  • Ignores cash flows after payback
  • Doesn't measure profitability
13
Accounting Rate of Return (ARR)
Uses accounting profit · Simple but ignores TVM

ARR measures average annual accounting profit as a percentage of average investment. Simple to use with readily available data — but ignores time value of money.

ARR = (Average Annual Profit After Tax ÷ Average Investment) × 100
Average Investment = (Initial Investment + Salvage Value) ÷ 2
📌 Quick Example
ARR Calculation

Machine Cost = ₹5,00,000. Life = 5 years. Salvage = ₹50,000. Total Profit (5 yrs) = ₹2,00,000.

Avg Annual Profit = 2,00,000 ÷ 5 = ₹40,000.

Avg Investment = (5,00,000 + 50,000) ÷ 2 = ₹2,75,000.

ARR = (40,000 ÷ 2,75,000) × 100 = 14.55%

If required return = 12%: ARR (14.55%) > 12% → ACCEPT

MethodTVM?Accept RuleBest ForMain Weakness
NPV✅ YesNPV > 0Ranking projectsNeeds discount rate
IRR✅ YesIRR > WACCCommunicating returnsMultiple IRRs possible
PI✅ YesPI > 1Capital rationingIgnores project size
Payback❌ NoPBP < MaxLiquidity checkIgnores post-PBP flows
ARR❌ NoARR > RequiredQuick profit checkUses profit not cash
💡 Which is Best? NPV is theoretically superior and is the recommended method. IRR is widely used because % is easy to communicate. Use both — and when they conflict, trust NPV!
14
Working Capital Management — Introduction
What it is · Why it matters · Objectives

Working Capital is the money a business needs for its day-to-day operations — buying raw materials, paying wages, covering utility bills. Without adequate working capital, even a profitable company can fail. This is called the "profitable but bankrupt" paradox.

I.M. Pandey

"Working Capital Management is concerned with the management of current assets and current liabilities."

📌 Simple Example
Textile Company — Why WC Matters

Jan: Buys cotton worth ₹10 lakh. Feb: Weaves it into cloth. Mar: Sells on 60-day credit. May: Receives cash.

From Jan to May = 4 months. During these 4 months, ₹10 lakh is locked in the business cycle. This locked money = Working Capital. Without it, production stops → orders lost → company fails despite having good products!

Net Working Capital (NWC) = Current Assets − Current Liabilities
🎯 Objectives of Working Capital Management

💧 Liquidity (Safety)

  • Always have enough cash to pay wages, suppliers, bills
  • Avoid insolvency risk
  • Too little WC = operations stop!

💰 Profitability (Efficiency)

  • Don't hold excess cash/inventory (opportunity cost)
  • Idle funds should be invested
  • Too much WC = wasted resources!
💡 The Balancing Act: Too little WC = risky (can't pay bills). Too much WC = inefficient (idle money). The goal: find the RIGHT level — adequate but not excessive.
15
Components & Types of Working Capital
Current Assets · Current Liabilities · Permanent vs Temporary WC

🟢 Current Assets (CA)

  • Cash & Bank Balance — immediate payments
  • Inventory — Raw materials, WIP, Finished goods
  • Debtors/Receivables — credit sales not yet collected
  • Marketable Securities — short-term investments
  • Prepaid Expenses — advance payments

🔴 Current Liabilities (CL)

  • Creditors/Payables — goods bought on credit
  • Bank Overdraft — short-term bank borrowing
  • Outstanding Expenses — wages/rent not yet paid
  • Short-term Loans — repayable within 1 year
📊 Types of Working Capital
📦

Gross WC

Total Current Assets. Represents total investment in short-term assets. GWC = CA.

⚖️

Net WC

Current Assets MINUS Current Liabilities. Measures liquidity. Positive = liquid. Negative = dangerous.

🏠

Permanent WC

Minimum WC always needed — never goes below this baseline, regardless of season.

🌊

Temporary WC

Extra WC needed during peak seasons only. Example: toy company before Diwali season.

🔑 Determinants — What Affects WC Level?
  • Nature of Business: Manufacturing (high WC) vs Services (low WC)
  • Length of Operating Cycle: Longer cycle = more WC needed
  • Credit Policy: More credit given to customers = more debtors = more WC needed
  • Seasonality: Seasonal businesses (umbrellas, ACs, woolens) need variable WC
  • Rate of Growth: Faster growing company = more WC needed
  • Price Level (Inflation): Rising prices = same physical stock costs more
16
Operating Cycle & Approaches to WC Management
Cash Conversion Cycle · 3 Financing Approaches

The Operating Cycle (also called Cash Conversion Cycle) is the time taken to convert cash → raw materials → WIP → finished goods → debtors → cash again. It's the full circle of working capital flow.

🔄 Operating Cycle Stages

CASH → Buy Raw Materials → Production (WIP) → Finished Goods → Sell on Credit (Debtors) → Collect Cash → REPEAT

Operating Cycle = RM Days + WIP Days + FG Days + Debtor Days − Creditor Days
📌 Example — Automobile Company
Maruti Suzuki Operating Cycle

Raw Material storage = 30 days. Production/Assembly = 15 days. Finished goods waiting = 20 days. Dealers pay after = 30 days. Maruti pays steel suppliers after = 45 days.

Operating Cycle = 30 + 15 + 20 + 30 − 45 = 50 days.

Money is locked for 50 days! With monthly sales of ₹10,000 crore → WC needed = 10,000 × (50÷30) = ₹16,667 crore!

💡 Shorter operating cycle = LESS working capital needed = MORE efficient business.

📊 3 Approaches to WC Financing

1. Aggressive

High Risk, Low Cost. Use mostly short-term funds even for permanent current assets. Cheap but risky — must renew frequently. Good for confident companies.

🛡️

2. Conservative

Low Risk, High Cost. Use mostly long-term funds for all current assets. Safe but expensive — money tied up unnecessarily. Good for risky/uncertain industries.

⚖️

3. Moderate / Matching

Medium Risk, Medium Cost. Match maturity of funds to need. Long-term funds for permanent CA. Short-term funds for temporary CA. Most recommended!

💡 Matching Principle: The maturity of financing should MATCH the maturity of the need. Short-term needs → short-term funds. Long-term needs → long-term funds. This balances cost and risk optimally.
17
Estimation of Working Capital — Balance Sheet Method
How to calculate exactly how much WC a company needs

The Balance Sheet Method lists all expected Current Assets and Current Liabilities at their projected levels and computes the Net Working Capital required. It is the most structured and widely used method.

📐 Key Formulas for Each Component
ComponentFormula
Raw Material Stock(Annual RM Consumption ÷ 365) × Days of Stock
WIP Stock(Annual Cost of Production ÷ 365) × WIP Days
Finished Goods Stock(Annual Cost of Goods Sold ÷ 365) × FG Days
Debtors(Annual Credit Sales ÷ 365) × Collection Period Days
Less: Creditors(Annual Credit Purchases ÷ 365) × Payment Period Days
Net Working CapitalTotal CA − Total CL
Total WC RequiredNWC + Safety Margin (10–15%)
📝 Complete Balance Sheet Method Example

Given: Annual Sales = ₹60L (all credit). Cost of Production = ₹45L. RM Consumed = ₹20L. RM Stock = 30 days. WIP = 15 days. FG = 20 days. Debtors = 45 days. Creditors = 30 days.

CURRENT ASSETS:

1
RM Stock = (20,00,000÷365)×30 = ₹1,64,384
2
WIP Stock = (45,00,000÷365)×15 = ₹1,84,932
3
FG Stock = (45,00,000÷365)×20 = ₹2,46,575
4
Debtors = (60,00,000÷365)×45 = ₹7,39,726
5
Cash Balance = ₹50,000 (assumed)
6
Total CA = ₹13,85,617

CURRENT LIABILITIES:

7
Creditors = (20,00,000÷365)×30 = ₹1,64,384
8
NWC = ₹13,85,617 − ₹1,64,384 = ₹12,21,233
9
Add Safety Margin (10%) = ₹1,22,123
✅ Total Working Capital Required = ₹13,43,356 (≈ ₹13.43 Lakhs)
🎯 Exam Tip: Always show the Balance Sheet format clearly — list all CA items first, then all CL items, compute NWC, then add safety margin. Examiners give marks for correct format even if there are small calculation errors!
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